Celeb Glow
general | April 04, 2026

Difference between "Let x be a ..." and "Let x ... be arbitrary"

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What is the difference between "Let x be a ..." and "Let x ... be arbitrary"?

Consider the following example:

  • Let $R$ be an equivalence Relation on $A$. Then $\forall x, y\in A.\ [x]_R=[y]_R.$
  • Let $R$ be an arbitrary equivalence Relation on $A$. Then $\forall x, y\in A.\ [x]_R=[y]_R.$
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1 Answer

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There is no difference. "Let x be an ... " implies that it's any/arbitrary.
"Let x be an arbitrary ... " just makes this implication more explicit.
But formally speaking, they mean the same.

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